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Great find Ghengis.
Why would they have steppe-dna (aryan), when the aryans only arrived much later to bring about their downfall?
The article was specifically about debunking the Out-of-India theory - by showing that the Indus Valley had no R1a marker, thus demonstrating that the R1a can't have spread from India, as per:
http://www.caravanmagazine.in/vantage/in...rakhigarhi
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In other words, the preprint observes that the migration from the steppes to South Asia was the source of the Indo-European languages in the subcontinent. Commenting on this, Rai said, “any model of migration of Indo-Europeans from South Asia simply cannot fit the data that is now available.”
Anyway, my point was:
1. Cernunnos is an Aryan god (unless I'm mistaken?)
2. Indus Valley has no connection with the Aryan/Steppe Pastoralists
3. So there isn't a clear connection between Cernussos and the Indus Valley image.
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"Iranian farmers" is a complete bullshit politicized term. Laughable. There were no Iranians until 8000 years later!
Don't be dramatic - this is exactly the same type of rhetoric Israelis use about Palestians "There was never a Palestine, so there were no Palestinians either". It's arguing semantics, which in this case takes away from the point: in context of the graph, Iranian farmers clearly refers to farmers who 4000-9000 years ago lived in what's modern-day Iran.
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They are in fact saying that the Indus Valley people WERE European, but not Nordic as such
No, that's not what they're saying at all. What they are saying is they found a mix from farmers from the area that's modern-day Iran (Anatolian Greeks/Europeans as per your post) and native Indian hunter-gatherers (I presume negroid, since that's what Andaman Islanders are).
That doesn't negate a potential hypothesis that it may have been the Iranian farmers that created the Indus Valley first and then had their genes mixed with the Indian hunter-gatherers. I assume that's your hypothesis, and I'm inclined towards such a hypothesis - from the bits I know about the Andaman Islanders, I'm not confident they could've developed a high civilization, and it most likely were the farmers who created the civilization. Although even then, the Andaman Islanders may be the "Idiocracy"-like remnants of the Indus Valley civilization, and not representative of the average IQ at the time (one only has to imagine the average Westerner a hundred years from now and compare to the high of Western Civilization). And perhaps what they refer to as Indian hunter-gatherers were more accurately remnants of the Dwarka Civilization that got wrecked by a massive flood, and they may have been the primary contributors to the Indus Valley Civilization.
In about two millenia, they may do excavations in Canada, find genetic material that is a mix between what they will call Native Canadian hunter-gatherers and Punjabi farmers (considering most of the Sikhs in Canada are from a farming background), and someone may claim: "They are in fact saying North American people WERE Punjabi, but not Dravidian as such."
Regardless, the genetic evidence mentioned does not support any such hypothesis either way about Indus Valley people.
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Unfortunately, you have to be an adept code breaker, to read the politicized meaning of these descriptions:
Not really, as for Iranian Farmers being European, it does not appear anyone is hiding that they may be Anatolian:
https://indo-european.info/ie/Ancestral_...th_Indians
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ANI can be modelled as a mix of ancestry related to both western Iranian farmers and people from the Bronze Age Eurasian steppe, and is thus close to Middle Easterners, Central Asians, and Europeans[Lazaridis et al. 2016]. Because of that, it is possible that the ANI component was prevalent in the Mehrgarh and later Indus Valley Civilisation, expanding eastward into South India in an admixture event associated with the spread of farming, as suggested by mtDNA lineages that entered India from Anatolia, the Caucasus and Iran in the earliest Neolithic sites. The ASI component may have expanded earlier, possibly in different waves, from west and south-west Asia, with the end of the last Ice Age
Also note how a published researcher like the proprietor of the indo-european.eu/info websites is mindful of stating things as possibilities, rather than absolute certainties ("it is possible", "as suggested by", "may have expanded").
This is in strong contrast to your own style, which is heavy on the rhetoric, "laughable", This is fact.", "We know for a fact".
We should be careful making absolute statements about historical "facts" thousands of years ago. At best, we can state some things accurately such as whether certain human remains had the R1a haplogroup or not. At worst completely wrong conclusions can be drawn. Here's a great example about a hypothetical case where in the future people assume the homeland for everyone in America was in the Lowlands (Holland) instead of Britain and Spain:
https://indo-european.eu/2017/11/correla...ypothesis/
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Let me illustrate this attractive “Correlation = Causation” argument, using it to solve the problem of Future American languages.
Suppose we live in a future post-apocalyptic world ca. 3500 AD, with no surviving historical records before 3000 AD. None. Just investigation of cultures and their relationship by Archaeology, proto-languages reconstructed and language families identified by Linguistics, etc.
We have thus Future Germanic and Future Romance as the only language families spoken in Future Western Europe and in the Future Americas, in a distribution similar to the present day*, and we have certain somehow related archaeologically-defined cultures on both sides of the Atlantic, like Briton, Iberian, Norman, or Lowlandish, although their distribution remains partly undefined in time and space.
* If you are really curious about this scenario, you can read about the potential evolution of a Future North-American language.
But what languages did the ancestors of Future Americans speak, and who spread them? That question remains far from being settled by our future researchers, in spite of the solidest linguistic and migration models (talking mainly about Briton and Iberian cultures): too many authorities out there questioning them, fighting to impose their own pet theories.
Suddenly, the newly developed field of Human Ancestry comes to save the day. So let’s say we have this map of ancient samples recovered (dated from, say, the 6th to the 18th century AD), and our study is centered on the newly described “Western European” component (a precise combination of, say, WHG+steppe), which peaks in early samples from the Low Lands – hence we call it, quite daringly, “Lowlandic component“.
Our group is keen to demonstrate that the ancient Lowlandic culture described in Archaeology (marked especially by the worldwide distribution of tulips among other traits) is the origin of Western European and American languages… Now, let’s reach conclusions about migrations in the Middle Ages!
PCA shows that South-West European samples cluster closely to some North-West European samples, and that some late South American samples available cluster at some distance from North American samples – nearer to a native component represented by two individuals with 0% Lowlandic ancestry and a different cluster in PCA. And some North-American samples cluster quite closely to North-West European samples.
Based on the decrease in ‘Lowlandic component’ in the different samples and on PCA, we conclude that Lowlandic peoples (“or their close relatives”) must have migrated at the same time to North America, South America (or potentially from North America to South America?) as well as western, central, and northern Europe. Both migration events must have happened roughly at the same time, in part because both distinct language families appear in a north-south distribution, and Proto-Lowlandic must be (according to Genetics) the ancestor of both, Proto-Future-Germanic and Proto-Future-Romance.
That makes a lot of sense! A huge Lowlandic pressure for migration, you see. Push-pull mechanisms and stuff. A Lowlandic Empire probably (scattered remains are found everywhere)! And, judging by the presence of the ‘Lowlandic component’ in Future East Europe from the Elbe to the Vistula, maybe Lowlandic peoples spread Proto-Slavic, too! We can even date the common Lowlandic-Slavic proto-language this way! So many groundbreaking conclusions!
Future scholars supporting the Lowlandic homeland are on fire; they can’t get enough of publishing papers on the subject. “Two different Future American language families with cultural origins in Britain and Iberia, my ass! Because genetics.”