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Does national wealth cause feminism?
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Does national wealth cause feminism?

Men who work for a living/have their own business strive to create value for society every time we labor. However, are we digging our own grave by making society wealthier through producing goods and services as it allows feminism to flourish? Alternatively, is it the presence of welfare rather than overall and the redistribution of resources from men to women that cause feminism and decrease the quality of the female population? Of course there can be no controlled conditions like in physics or chemistry but we can make some general observations from today and the past.

We can all propose that the prevalence of feminism plus the legal and technological enablers are the primary factors in the decreasing quality of women today. Judging from my experience of life in Eastern Europe, USA and travels to Asia and South America, as well as the general consensus of the Manosphere- wealth seems to spoil women as can be easily observed is almost all Western countries. In my opinion, the highest quality of women are in Ukraine and Russia - two relatively poor countries when you compare them to the West, but middle of the road if you take the whole world into account (obviously - most of South East Asia and Africa is poorer without having higher quality girls than Eastern Europe). Despite Soviet propaganda championing feminism, it has remained rather low there until recently with more openness to the west. Roosh best describes it in his experience in Poland 2011 vs 2018 how he had to switch from hybrid game to clown game due to the country becoming wealthier.

There is a similar situation in South America to Eastern Europe yet wealthy Muslim middle eastern countries such as Saudi Arabia and UAE still maintain traditional values (despite allowing women to drive recently). Israel is also an interesting phenomenon as it has high birth rate despite high wealth and lots of liberals and multiculturalism. http://www.returnofkings.com/77443/5-rea...ful-states

Furthermore, when we look back at history, we see some feminism in the wealthy parts of the ancient world with a drop in feminism with the European Dark Ages after the fall of the Western Roman Empire. When we read the memoirs of Roman poets who lament on their wives falling in love with actors and athletes and the prevalence of PUAs such as Ovid (http://www.returnofkings.com/53677/lesso...tin-lover-) one can easily see the parallel with modern United States. However, 5 centuries before, in wealthy Periclean Athens - women did not participate in public life and it was thought that the biggest virtue a woman can have is not to be talked about. Perhaps it was the fact that Rome had welfare and Athens did not (although it did have lots of government jobs)? Do not recall any nomadic step people having much feminist values except for perhaps the Scythians. Same for Germanic and Nordic tribes of the Middle Ages. Obviously, the Industrial revolution caused wealth to skyrocket everywhere and feminism seems to correlate with it. But does it cause it?

This thought first occurred to me six years ago when I was watching a historical documentary about the 20th Century of America and she asked if hippies and feminists of the 60s caused the economic slow down of the 70s or if the economic success of the 50s and 60s caused the Baby Boomers to become hippies and feminists? Are men stuck in this hamster wheel of more work leads to more wealth leads to feminism leads to inversion?

Love to hear your thoughts - searched for this topic before hand. What is your opinion?

"The unexamined life is not worth living." - Socrates
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