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Please explain to me where this 80/20, Chad theory comes from
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Please explain to me where this 80/20, Chad theory comes from

Quote: (11-19-2018 03:43 PM)Lampwick Wrote:  

Quote: (11-19-2018 01:42 PM)corsega Wrote:  

The 80/20 rule is a strawman, it's actually more like 60/20, but close enough: https://ifstudies.org/blog/male-sexlessn...cels-claim

I agree with your assessment, and this article has some good data.

Their conclusion on the data is ridiculous though. Paraphrasing: "Sexlessness among never-married men isn't increasing because of increasing female promiscuity, it's because of delay of marriage!"

Who does the author think is delaying marriage? If anything, he's making the case for the incel/red pill view that women's hypergamous nature is a constant, and more women are simply opting out of the marriage pool, preferring to join the rest of the never-married women cohort in fucking the top 20% of guys.

Good post, the problem here is definitional, because of the way that the "game" works --- guys do the asking or the proactive measure of "deciding" to get married, thus the way the article states it is accurate, but it doesn't talk about how the other side has had a dramatic impact on the decision making. You and I know that if the quality of woman (losing fertility and youth for career etc.) is going down, of course these guys are just making rational decisions, given the existing legal structures beyond the commitment to marry, which cinches it.
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