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Violent vs. Peaceful Protests.Which has been more effective historically?
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Violent vs. Peaceful Protests.Which has been more effective historically?

I suppose that the backdrop would be considered war (England and France), but the magna carta could, in a sense (between the two principle parties, barons and sovereign) be considered a peaceful protest.

It was more like a withholding of support, until a new (explicit) contract was signed.

But citizens today could do the same (provided they had bargaining power, like the barons).
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