[Samseau]

(06-03-2015 05:16 PM)scorpion Wrote:  

My only concern with this analysis is how reliant it is on applying modern definitions to ancient words. I think Samseau has made an excellent case that the Greek porneia is more accurately translated as whoredom as opposed to fornication.

Fornication ONLY means whoredom. Fornix = "under the arch" in latin, which were the main arches in Roman forums that whores gathered under at night. Men who went there were "fornicators." Pornia generally meant whore but could also include incest, rape, or adultery depending on its context.

If you look at the parts above where I went to the Vatican's website, you'll see I found some really strange and inconsistent stuff right on the catechism with their translations of this word. Etymological dictionaries show that the definition of fornication was changed in 1300 AD.

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It's entirely possible that any woman who had premarital sex in those days was considered a whore, regardless of whether she accepted any monetary compensation, and that any man who had relations with her was therefore in "whoredom".

This is a good objection but we know men could still make use of women as concubines or female slaves. So the word whore does seem to have a specific meaning of being pay for play.

Orgies are also condemned in the Bible, but here we can see blatant debauchery, and not merely one man courting and bedding a non-virginal woman. Also orgies could include homosexuality or even beastiality.

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Samseau, you mentioned your research touched on how the definition of whoredom was applied in the law at the time. Could you go into more detail on that? Perhaps that would clarify the issue.

It's being worked on. I've already shared this info with my priest and he said everything seemed compelling but he wanted to look into canon law of 9th century AD and earlier. He can read ancient Greek. Once he gets me some more info I will report back here.